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QUESTION 1
Given:
New updated Microsoft, Cisco, VMware, CompTIA exam questions in VCE and PDF format
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QUESTION 1
Given:
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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
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QUESTION 1
Examine the following commands:
# groupadd project
# mkdir /usr/share/project
# chown -r root.project /usr/share/project
# qpasswd -a scott project
# qpasswd -a foo project
# chmod 2775 /usr/share/project
Based on the commands, which statement is correct?
A. Any new file created in the /usr/share/project folder by user scott will not be possible for foo to modify it.
B. All members of the project group need the administrator’s help to change the file permission every time users write new files in the /usr/share/project folder.
C. Files created by all members of the project group in the /usr/share/project folder will get the same group permission as the folder itself.
D. The chmod command can only take a tree-digit argument.
Answer: A
Explanation:
*A permission of “2755” for a directory means that everyone has read and execute permission, while the file owner and members of the file’s group additionally have write permission. And any files or subdirectories created in that directory will inherit the parent directory’s group id.
Incorrect:
Not D: chmod 2775 is a valid command.
QUESTION 2
View the exhibit.
Examine the grub.conf file snippet in the Exhibit. Which statement is true if your Linux system boots by using this grub.conf file?
A. GRUB will boot, by default, the first kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
B. GRUB will prompt you to select the kernel to be booted because the default parameter is set to 0.
C. GRUB will boot the kernel specified in the inittab file of the system.
D. GRUB will boot, by default, the second kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According the grub .conf file you have got 8 seconds to choose whether to boot the first entry.Now if you want to change, and let say you want the second grub entry as booting system by default, justchange the line:default=0 bydefault=1
QUESTION 3
The DBA tells you that the system is not overloaded but you can tell that the system us actively swapping. What command would you run to show this information to the DBA?
A. # iotop
B. # iostat 5 10
C. # cat /proc/meminfo
D. # vmstat 5 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
*iostat – Report Central Processing Unit (CPU) statistics and input/output statistics for devices, partitions and network filesystems (NFS).
*The iostat command is used for monitoring system input/output device loading by observing the time the devices are active in relation to their average transfer rates. The iostat command generates reports that can be used to change system configuration to better balance the input/output load between physical disks.
Incorrect:
Not A: Related to kernel and processes.
*iotop – simple top-like I/O monitor
*iotop watches I/O usage information output by the Linux kernel (requires 2.6.20 or later) and displays a table of current I/O usage by processes or threads on the system.
*iotop displays columns for the I/O bandwidth read and written by each process/thread during the sampling period. It also displays the percentage of time the thread/process spent while swapping in and while waiting on I/O. For each process, its I/O priority (class/level) is shown. In addition, the total I/O bandwidth read and written during the sampling period is displayed at the top of the interface.
Not C: related to RAM usage.
*The entries in the /proc/meminfo can help explain what’s going on with your memory usage, if you know how to read it.
*High-Level Statistics
MemTotal: Total usable ram (i.e. physical ram minus a few reserved bits and the kernel binary code)
MemFree: Is sum of LowFree+HighFree (overall stat) MemShared: 0; is here for compat reasons but always zero. Buffers: Memory in buffer cache. mostly useless as metric nowadays Cached: Memory in the pagecache (diskcache) minus SwapCache SwapCache: Memory that once was swapped out, is swapped back in but still also is in the swapfile (if memory is needed it doesn’t need to be swapped out AGAIN because it is already in the swapfile. This saves I/O)
Not D:vmstat – Report virtual memory statistics
QUESTION 4
View the cron job example below. How often will this cron job run?
0 */ 5 * * * command
A. every 5 minutes
B. every 5 hours
C. every 5 days
D. every 5th month
Answer: B
Explanation:
Execute a cron job every 5 Hours
The second field is for hours. If you specify * in this field, it runs every hour. If you specify */5 in the 2nd field, it runs every 5 hours as shown below.
0 */5 * * * /home/ramesh/backup.sh
QUESTION 5
What happens when the following command is run?
# authconfig – – passalgo = md5 – – update
A. It produces the MD5 checksum of the input data.
B. It configures the MD5 checksum for newly authored documents
C. It converts the stdio input to MD5 algorithm.
D. It changes the user password hashing algorithm to MD5.
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Identify the two kernels that are shipped with Oracle Linux 6.
A. Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel
B. Unbeatable Enterprise Kernel 11g
C. Red Hat Compatible Kernel
D. Linux Compatible Kernel
E. Solaris 11 Container Kernel
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Oracle Linux 6 ships with two sets of kernel packages:
*Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel [kernel-uek-2.6.32-100.28.5.el6] Only available on the x86_64 (64 bit) platform
Installed and booted by default
*Red Hat compatible Kernel [kernel-2.6.32-71.el6] Installed by default
QUESTION 7
You have to find the default run level of your Oracle Linux system.
Which file will help you find this information?
A. /boot/grub/grub.conf
B. /etc/inittab
C. /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit
D. /etc/rc.local
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d
Answer: B
Explanation:
The default run level is specified in the /etc/inittab file.
QUESTION 8
On your Oracle Linux 6 system, you have to configure the eth0 network interface to 100 MB/sec, half duplex without trying to autonegotiate. Which command will help you configure this requirement?
A. # ifconfig eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
B. # ethtool interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
C. # ifconfig interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
D. # ethtool -seth0speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
Answer: D
Explanation:
When I have a device that is acting up, I tend to run: ethtool ethX, check the Supported link modes, the Link partner advertised link modes and the actual speed and Duplex. If my Supported link mode is set low (say 10/Half for some reason) but my switch supports 1000baseT/Full then I’ll use ethtool -s ethX to change my ethernet settings to 1000baseT/Full. Just about anything you see from: ethtool ethX, can be changed with ethtool -S ethX. In this case you would use the following:
ethtool -S eth0 speed 1000 duplex full autoneg on
QUESTION 9
As a system administrator, you run the system-config-network tool and make changes to the configuration. You change the hostname and the DNS search path settings. Which two files will these changes be written into?
A. “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
B. “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “etc/nsswitch.conf/” files
C. “/etc/sysconfig/netconfig” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
D. “etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle ASMLib library?
A. Oracle ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) feature.
B. To use ASMLib library, you have to recompile it first for the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel.
C. Oracle Automatic Storage management (ASM) requires Oracle ASMLib library to function completely.
D. Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is included in the Unbreakable Kernel.
Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not C):ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management feature of the Oracle Database.
ASMLib allows an Oracle Database using ASM more efficient and capable access to the disk groups it is using.
D (not B):The Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is now included in the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel. No driver package needs to be installed when using this kernel.
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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?
A. An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B. A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C. A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D. A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E. A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F. ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.
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QUESTION 31
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).
A. Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B. Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C. Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D. Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E. Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 32
Which of the following BEST describes a routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string?
A. Error handling to protect against program exploitation
B. Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks
C. Input validation to protect against SQL injection
D. Padding to protect against string buffer overflows
Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production?
A. Roll back changes in the test environment
B. Verify the hashes of files
C. Archive and compress the files
D. Update the secure baseline
Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following cryptographic attacks would salting of passwords render ineffective?
A. Brute force
B. Dictionary
C. Rainbow tables
D. Birthday
Answer: B
QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing.
Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. DMZ
B. NAT
C. VPN
D. PAT
Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Shared
D. Session
Answer: D
QUESTION 37
A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue?
A. Botnet
B. Ransomware
C. Polymorphic malware
D. Armored virus
Answer: A
QUESTION 38
A company is currently using the following configuration:
* IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP
* Unencrypted authentication via PAP
A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations:
* PAP authentication method
* PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication
Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Select TWO).
A. PAP
B. PEAP
C. MSCHAP
D. PEAP-MSCHAP
E. EAP
F. EAP-PEAP
Answer: AF
QUESTION 39
A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate?
A. It can protect multiple domains
B. It provides extended site validation
C. It does not require a trusted certificate authority
D. It protects unlimited subdomains
Answer: B
QUESTION 40
After a merger between two companies a security analyst has been asked to ensure that the organization’s systems are secured against infiltration by any former employees that were terminated during the transition.
Which of the following actions are MOST appropriate to harden applications against infiltration by former employees? (Select TWO)
A. Monitor VPN client access
B. Reduce failed login out settings
C. Develop and implement updated access control policies
D. Review and address invalid login attempts
E. Increase password complexity requirements
F. Assess and eliminate inactive accounts
Answer: CF
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QUESTION 21
The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented?
A. Implicit deny
B. VLAN management
C. Port security
D. Access control lists
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QUESTION 21
Because your project is slated to last five years, you believe rolling wave planning is appropriate. It provides information about the work to be done______________.
A. Throughout all project phases
B. For successful completion of the current project phase
C. For successful completion of the current and subsequent project phases
D. In the next project phase
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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a definition of an RFP?
A. A document sent to potential vendors to solicit a bid for a project
B. A document sent to potential vendors to request information for skills and experience for a project
C. A document sent to potential vendors to request a commitment for a project
D. A document sent to potential vendors to solicit information that excludes pricing information for a project
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QUESTION 21
Which two methods can be used to mitigate resource exhaustion of an application server? (Choose two)
A. Vulnerability Object
B. DoS Protection Profile
C. Data Filtering Profile
D. Zone Protection Profile
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QUESTION 11
Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)
A. DNS-based.
B. Proxy-based.
C. Flow-based.
D. URL-based.